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King James Error

Hi James,

Thanks for your quotes from Spurgeon. Other KJ radicals make the same mistake [ie Derek Pearce 'The Doubter's Dozen" back page]. But Spurgeon wasn't a KJ radical. Lets look at your quote -

>>If THIS BOOK be not infallible, where shall we find infallibility? We have given up the Pope, for he has blundered often and terribly; but we shall not set up instead of him a horde of little popelings fresh from college. Are these correctors of Scripture infallible? Is it certain that OUR BIBLES are not right, but that the critics be so?<<

I couldn’t find this quote among Spurgeon’s writings but I could well believe he said it. Some SDA’s have wrongly called Spurgeon a Seventh Day Adventist because of his continual mention of the Lord’s Sabbath. But by this Spurgeon was referring to Sunday as the Lord’s Day, not the Saturday. I’m afraid the situation is similar with the mention of infallibility etc. Modernism was raising its ugly head in Spurgeon’s day. The father of literalism Scheiermacher [1768-1834] had been preaching and writing books for years. He was throwing off fundamental Christian doctrine, questioning every verse and calling people to reject the Bible as genuine or inspired. The Puritans reacted against this, evangelicals even withdrawing from the higher schools of learning.

You see, Spurgeon [1834-92] is not saying anything too different than most evangelicals today. When we say ‘God’s Word is infallible’ we don’t mean only the KJV is God’s Word as apposed to the RV or NIV etc. Spurgeon is not saying those foreign Christians who can’t read the KJV or don’t use the KJV can’t be saved. And they can’t know sound doctrine. He’s not saying the RV [1881] is ‘satanic, untrustworthy and a counterfeit’. Spurgeon realised that textual criticism was a valid part of Christian scholarship. Radicals deceitfully quote Spurgeon at times. Ask your self why?

Note those places where Spurgeon mentions the RV in his commentary on Matthew he doesn’t condemn it [7:9-10 9:3 22:10 24:32-33]. He knew the KJ translators added the words in italics in our KJV and so those words were not apart of holy writ. Note what Spurgeon says concerning Mtt.12:23 -

“Our Revised Version very properly leaves out the "not". It was natural for the translators to put it in, for it looks as if many must have seen the true Solomon in this great Wonderworker. But as it is not in the original it; we must not allow the "not"; and then the question shows how strangely unbelieving they were, and yet how some conviction forced itself on them."

[CH Spurgeon “A Popular Exposition to the Gospel According to Mathew” 1893]

I rest my case.

Regards

Mark Purchase.

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